
I guess my first set of questions wasn't clear enough. let me try again, only this time i'll ask them separately.
do we calculate the bayes factor by using the probability of winning *for the winning team?*
this would explain why we use nine instances of .9 (for the nine Reds wins) and one instance of .1 (for the time Blues win) for M1 and .99 and .01 for M2.
if i'm back on track I wonder what I missed in the prose on pages 316318?
